"Has it been heard" or "Has been heard"?
Take a look on this bible's verse I was reading
"Never since the world began has it been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a msn born blind" John 9:32 (NVI)
Of course, I don't wanna to correct the bible, I just wanna understand what's the need of the presence of this "it' in the structure of the phrase, so my question is this: Why couldn't be "Never since the world began it has been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a msn born blind" John 9:32 (NVI)?
The exchanging "it" with "has", is something conected with the emphasis of the phrase? Thaks you all
"Never since the world began has it been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a msn born blind" John 9:32 (NVI)
Of course, I don't wanna to correct the bible, I just wanna understand what's the need of the presence of this "it' in the structure of the phrase, so my question is this: Why couldn't be "Never since the world began it has been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a msn born blind" John 9:32 (NVI)?
The exchanging "it" with "has", is something conected with the emphasis of the phrase? Thaks you all
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