"Has it been heard" or "Has been heard"?

Take a look on this bible's verse I was reading

"Never since the world began has it been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a msn born blind" John 9:32 (NVI)

Of course, I don't wanna to correct the bible, I just wanna understand what's the need of the presence of this "it' in the structure of the phrase, so my question is this: Why couldn't be "Never since the world began it has been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a msn born blind" John 9:32 (NVI)?

The exchanging "it" with "has", is something conected with the emphasis of the phrase? Thaks you all :D

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1 resposta
Donay Mendonça 23 127 1.7k
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