Yes, I do. (I have an opinion).
The problem is, we are told that apostrophes are used with inanimate subjects, period. It´s not so ''black and white"; its usage seems like having some 50 shades of grey...!http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=165875
They call it the "descriptive genitive" (e.g. "the sun's rays") when it is a property of, or otherwise associated with, an object rather than something it actually owns as such, and the "possessive genitive" when it is truly a genitive ("Matching Mole's computer"). The forms are the same however, either "inflected" (apostrophe "s", e.g. "the moon's reflection") or "periphrastic" (meaning a circumlocution, e.g. "the reflection of the moon").
The problem is that some purist grammarians do not accept that inanimate objects can use the inflected genitive because that they cannot always be said to possess certain attributes ascribed to them ("a day's pay" being a classic example). This strikes me as a rarified view that any sensible mole can ignore. In any case, there are other grammarians who argue that the genitive has always had more uses than the strict possessive.
Having said that, I think English speakers quite often obey the rule about not using the inflected genitive for inanimates; I think you may only be able to learn the skill of when to, and when not to, by experience.
Perhaps that´s why in the following guidelines they don´t explicitly spouse such a thing (with all those words)...http://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.c ... apostrophehttps://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/621/01/http://www.eng-lang.co.uk/apostrophe_rules.htm
So, as you see; "curtain´s
" meaning "of the curtain
" can be used (mainly in music or informal way). I would say it´s a genitive descriptive, since ''a call" isn´t normally a thing a curtain would do. But with some poetical licence, it can be used, just like in Portuguese.