Uso avançado do verbo "To have"

Hey, guys.
I was reading an english course book my mom bought some weeks ago and I saw what I can describe as a really intriguing thing.
The book basically says the verb "to have" in the simple present tense has no auxiliary in negative and interrogative sentences.

These are some of the sentences I found:

" Has he an office in Paris?
No, he hasn't."

"Verb to have: Present Tense

Negative

I have not
You have not
He has not
... "

Is everything I've learned about the verb "to have" wrong?

I mean, in all the tests I took there was an alternative with this example and the alternative was always wrong.

So, who's wrong, I or the book?

(I don't know if it's got something to do with it, but the book is about british english)