Although I cannot say, with absolute certainty, that your senteces are incorrect, you would be considerably more likely to see "nor" being used in tandem (together) with "neither". This is very much a set phrase in English, and I suspect most grammarians would favor it over other forms. E.g.:
I can neither read nor write. (Correct)
It belongs neither to me nor to you. (Correct)
If you choose to use "nor" without "neither", it is possible that you would need to rephrase the sentence and use an inversion. Eg.:
I cannot read, nor can I write.
It doesn't belong to me, nor does it (belong) to you.
If you have any questions, by all means feel free to ask.